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Thread: Why Yahoshua or Jesus called himself the son of man

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    Default Re: Why Yahoshua or Jesus called himself the son of man

    Quote Posted by SamwiseTheBrave (here)
    Isn't the first letter of the Hebrew alphabet "A"...which represents the Hebrew letter "Alep" or "Aleph"...?
    Hebrew doesn't have vowels like we do. They put down a placeholder symbol for a vowel and then put dots or dashes under it to indicate what vowel sound it actually is. So aleph could be an "ah" sound or an "e" sound, or probably other vowel sounds as well.

    So I sent this to my Israeli buddy ("IB") who speaks modern Hebrew. It's not the same as ancient Hebrew, but it's close enough that he was able to give me some opinions on it.

    This is what he told me:

    IB: I'll just read 7:13 [Masoretic text] without looking at that weird translation
    IB: Which I can't make sense of, it seems to take word roots instead of whole words
    IB: Bore witness presently to that which is witnessed in the night and the sky was lit up up with clouds already human you present (this instance of "present" looks like it's missing a yod at the beginning to be Yehova) and until ancient days down and forward and sacrifice (note that in [Hebrew] "sacrifice"is the same word as "to bring near")
    IB: For cleanliness here's the version without notes:
    IB: Bore witness presently to that which is witnessed in the night and the sky was lit up with clouds already human you present and until ancient days down and forward and sacrifice

    Me: i see
    Me: so in other words the people who translated this into english, over the course of time, have taken a lot of liberalities
    IB: It appears he has made at least one false assumption which I just noticed
    IB: He seems to think of כְּבַר as if it were כְּבַּר
    IB: The difference? The dot in the middle letter
    IB: The one without the dot is read as V whereas the one with the dot is read as B
    IB: "Kvar", as I've read it, means "already", whereas "Kebar", as it appears he read it according to the translation below, does indeed mean "like a son (of...)"

    Me: hmm
    IB: You can even see he put the one WITH the dot in his comparison table
    IB: And then look at the origin and see there's no dot
    IB: Does this please you?

    Me: this stuff is beyond me
    Me: if it were a european language id be more able to make random guesses at what could be going on in these translations
    Me: since its a different linguistic family altogether, i have no idea how to take all this
    IB: Also, I noticed he translates אֲרוּ as "and, behold", but that's a rather common biblical spelling for "cast light" (plural)
    IB: Maybe if you SWAP LETTERS
    IB: ‫‏‫ראֲוּ
    IB: Bam
    IB: This means "behold"

    Me: but the "behold" form isnt in the masoretic text?
    IB: ‫וַאֲרוּ
    IB: The vav appears to be "and"
    IB: But I just explained אֲרוּ
    IB: AFAIK it's only "behold" if you swap the first and second letter

    Me: otherwise, it indicates that the clouds were lit up?
    IB: Let me go this word by word for you
    IB: Cos I'm nice
    IB: First we have אֲרוּ (aru) which AFAIK means "(they) cast light"
    IB: Then you have עִם ( im ) which commonly means "with" but could mean "using" (as english "I beat you with a stick" compared to "I beat you using a stick")
    IB: Then you have עֲנָנֵי (Ananey) which is clearly some form of "clouds", I'd say this form is specifically "clouds of" but maybe I read this wrong and it's actually pronounced "Ananai" (the dotting is wrong for it though) which would mean "my clouds"
    IB: And lastly you have שְׁמַיָּא which makes the least sense to me lexically, but appears to be "towards the sky"
    IB: All in all those four together appear to say that SOMEONE used the clouds to cast light.
    IB: And that SOMEONE is more than one person
    IB: Because "aru" is plural


    (In this last bit of conversation, he indicates that the text most literally reads, to him, "(they) cast light with/using clouds (of) towards the sky.", though he admits this does not make sense to him. Languages can be very idiomatic so I'm open to the various possibilities of what this attempt at literal translation may actually mean.)


    So for what that's worth, there it is.

    Note that my buddy is 1) neither Christian nor Jewish, though he has grown up speaking modern Hebrew fluently, and 2) does not believe that we are being visited by ETs.

    Despite this, his rough translation:

    "Bore witness presently to that which is witnessed in the night and the sky was lit up with clouds already ["already" is translated as "son of..." but is apparently not spelled correctly for that] human you present ["present" may be "Yehova" with the yod missing] and until ancient days down and forward and sacrifice"

    ...sounds a lot more ET-like (Reptilian sacrifice?) than what the Bible actually says:

    "I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him."

    I know Simon Parkes for one has stated that anything to do with rituals and sacrifices in ancient religions, has something to do with Reptilian influence. This seems to be a recurrent idea with certain contactees. In this passage we appear to have not only a reference to sacrifice but also to the sky being lit up, and this light being related to "clouds," according to my friend, and both of these interpretations have been neglected in what has become the English translation of this passage.

    ...Also, after this passage, Daniel goes on to say that this "vision" troubled him, and he asked what all this meant. There are then passages such as "Then I would know the truth of the fourth beast, which was diverse from all the others, exceeding dreadful, whose teeth were of iron, and his nails of brass; which devoured, brake in pieces, and stamped the residue with his feet;" and there are interpretations of beasts with horns and prophetic comparisons to nations, etc.
    Last edited by A Voice from the Mountains; 8th November 2014 at 21:40.

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    United States Avalon Member nzreva's Avatar
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    Default Re: Why Yahoshua or Jesus called himself the son of man

    I was re reading your comments today and I was wondering if your comment on the Sumerian priest's meant to you that the sumerian priests (hijackers of the faith) of the time of Constantine's time were of the same belief system as the Sumerian time period?
    Quote Posted by johnf (here)
    Was it him that said that, or was it done because of the sumerian priests influencing king Constantine, in order to
    shift the energy from the teachings of the real teacher behind the one people today call Jesus, to the
    old Sumerian control system, in the guise of a new religion?

    I tend to think that the real teacher was a generation or so before the one that became called Jesus in the rewritten bible.
    In the end of course names, personalities, stories are rather unimportant.
    The actual spiritual principles, and the realization of them in our lives as best we can is what is important.

    The name Christos may have carried with it a change in society that was such a threat it had to be stolen, and reframed into a system of worship of the demiurge, as had all previous religions.

    John

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    Default Re: Why Yahoshua or Jesus called himself the son of man

    'enash (Aramaic) אֵנֶשׁ all the words for enash (Anash) http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/...ngs=H606&t=KJV

    Root word for Enash (abash) is 'enowsh אֱנוֹשׁ (anash) http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/...ngs=H582&t=KJV

    Root word for enowsh is 'abash אָנַשׁ http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/...ngs=H605&t=KJV
    Notice abash is A primitive root, that means the other two words come from this word, abash which means to be weak, sick, frail
    (Qal)
    to be incurable
    to be sick
    desperate, incurable, desperately wicked, woeful, very sick (pass participle) (metaph.)
    (Niphal) to be sick
    Genesis 1 Adam was Created = bara in the image of Elohim male = Zaker and female = Neqbah http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible.cfm? In Genesis 2 Adam male ish and later female isha is made Yatser = made not created bara = Gen&c=1&t=ESV#s=t_conc_1027


    There were giants h5303 נָפִיל nĕphiyl (is singular of nephelim,) those who fell
    in the earth in those days that
    when
    the sons
    h1121
    בֵּן ben

    of God h430
    אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym


    came in

    h935
    בּוֹא bow'
    unto the daughters

    h1323
    בַּת bath
    of men,
    h120
    אָדָם 'adam
    and they bare children to them, the sameh

    became mighty men h1368 גִּבּוֹר gibbowr


    which were of old, h5769 עוֹלָם `owlam
    men h582 אֱנוֹשׁ 'enowsh (enowsh is here the Nephilim those who naphil (fell)
    of renown. h8034 שֵׁם shem

    Yahoshua is the son of Enosh or Enowsh
    Enowsh is explained here as the the mixing of daughters of Adam and the sons of Elohim (Gods), Yahoshua or Jesus says he came to his own but they did not receive him, but anyone who did receive him that is internalize his teaching they then would be children of the Highest.
    Last edited by nzreva; 31st October 2018 at 01:54.

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    Default Re: Why Yahoshua or Jesus called himself the son of man

    Quote Posted by Robin (here)
    Quote Posted by nzreva (here)
    In Hebrew Enosh translates to man in English. the E is the first letter of the Hebrew Alphabet Alph.
    Huh...?

    Isn't the first letter of the Hebrew alphabet "A"...which represents the Hebrew letter "Alep" or "Aleph"...?


    Or am I missing something? To be honest, nxreva, your post was extremely difficult to comprehend. It helps to isolate letters and suffixes from the rest of the words in sentences, otherwise it all mashes together and is hard to read.
    The alph is the first letter of the Hebrew alaphbet, it is A and E in English.
    Pronounce Hebrew root for H7225 רֵאשִׁית A but E in English

    Look at God or Elohim in Hebrew h430 Alph is the first letter = אֱלֹהִים it translates E in English, I have not made it difficult the translators have. Alhym not Elohim.
    Last edited by nzreva; 31st October 2018 at 01:52.

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    Default Re: Why Yahoshua or Jesus called himself the son of man

    According to the Eastern Gnosis, the “sons of man” would be those humans who have the Real I, or a human essence, beside the personality (which is considered as a false or programmable structure) and the human physical body. The “sons of god” would be anthropoids, or those without the human essence (the Real I). The later would also be those “living deads”, or in today’s terminology, the “matrix agents”. (The entity which is considered as the god of the false or demiurgic reality, does not have a human essence, and therefore the name for those without it.)

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    Default Re: Why Yahoshua or Jesus called himself the son of man

    the aleph (pronounced ah-leph) and represents the "Ah" and "Eh" sounds. Aleph is a Hebrew word meaning "ox," and this letter is a picture of an ox head and represents the concept of "strength," from the strength of the ox. http://www.ancient-hebrew.org/files/...t_alphabet.jpg

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    Default Re: Why Yahoshua or Jesus called himself the son of man

    Quote Posted by nzreva (here)
    אֵנֶשׁ 'enash (Aramaic) Notice the letter alph אֵ is translated into English E. You can see the verse here http://www.blueletterbible.org/Bible...=t_conc_857013
    The letter "Aleph" doesn't have the "ah" sound like the English letter "a," or any sound at all by default. It's just a placeholder for a vowel sound in an alphabet that otherwise has no letters for vowels.

    In Hebrew, vowels are denoted by small marks made under the consonant letters. Usually they are left off the word entirely because native Hebrew speakers already recognize the words without needing the vowel marks.


    I just realized I posted the same information above months ago lol. But maybe it bears repeating. It's not hard to find Hebrew grammar lessons online.

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