scotslad
27th October 2020, 20:12
OK, so the Fed back in 2018 issued a consent order on the bank because of its criminal activity. Whilst the bank will be faced with the decision of having to
a) issue higher margin loans
or
b) somehow unlock balance sheet space to issue debt that results in a higher yield.
It still needs to ensure its liquidity is generous in case of another market crisis.
Interestingly, if it finds a buyer for its $10 billion student-loan portfolio, and the "debts" sold....would this raise a potential loop hole or LAWFUL way for all the thousands of students of avoiding repaying the original debt/loan?
I am curious (and don't know the answer) but If the debt is sold, and the new acquirer pursues the debtors, will the individual debtors (the students) be able to argue:
a) their debt is not with the new "owner" as their contract/agreement is not with them?
b) there would be no blue ink signature on a contract with the new owner from student?
c) If the debt was sold and there was no "accounting loss" in acquiring the debt, will they be able to demonstrate this in the pursuance of the debt...?
e.g. if they buy a $100K loan for say $5K, and pursue the oustanding balance/profit technically owed by the student, is there a legal/lawful argument to counter the debt?
Am curious. Any thoughts...?
a) issue higher margin loans
or
b) somehow unlock balance sheet space to issue debt that results in a higher yield.
It still needs to ensure its liquidity is generous in case of another market crisis.
Interestingly, if it finds a buyer for its $10 billion student-loan portfolio, and the "debts" sold....would this raise a potential loop hole or LAWFUL way for all the thousands of students of avoiding repaying the original debt/loan?
I am curious (and don't know the answer) but If the debt is sold, and the new acquirer pursues the debtors, will the individual debtors (the students) be able to argue:
a) their debt is not with the new "owner" as their contract/agreement is not with them?
b) there would be no blue ink signature on a contract with the new owner from student?
c) If the debt was sold and there was no "accounting loss" in acquiring the debt, will they be able to demonstrate this in the pursuance of the debt...?
e.g. if they buy a $100K loan for say $5K, and pursue the oustanding balance/profit technically owed by the student, is there a legal/lawful argument to counter the debt?
Am curious. Any thoughts...?